Home » Spanish Property Forums » Property Questions & Answers » REA fees
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The property friends are selling recently fell through but REA now insists that the remainder of his bill (he kept 10% of €15k) be paid because technically he had sold the house.
Our friends independent legal advisor agrees.
Also in contract clause stating buyer could reclaim deposit if obtaining mortgage was a problem.
Wondering if anything in this scenario is actually legal.
Would appreciate any help.
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Not sure if I made this clear
Buyers gave 25% deposit to REA who passed all but 10% of it( as deposit towards his selling costs of €15k ).
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Hi Melosine,
It all depends on the sales mandate contract between agent and vendor, and whatever contract the people wishing to buy signed. It’ll probably be legal if the parties signed up to these conditions. Sounds like a bit of a mess though
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