- November 13, 2015 at 7:50 pm #188173
We are thinking about buying a perfectly reformed old house in a Spanish village. Our issue is that, because the owner has had the house passed down from his family, there are no deeds (it isn’t on the land registry). Question: how long would it take to get the house registered and get the deeds?
- November 14, 2015 at 10:26 am #188175
DO YOURSELFS A BIG FAVOUR, RUN A MILE. YOU WILL END UP WITH WORTHLESS PAPERWORK AND LOOSE YOUR MONEY,I KNOW I HAVE BEEN THERE. TRY BUYING IN A MORE HONEST COUNTRY.
- November 14, 2015 at 11:07 am #188176
Bo Jangle’s advice is probably as good as any, but you might want to consider the following:
The only person that needs to provide an answer to your question is the seller.
However, if your question is how long would it take you, as the buyer, to get the place properly registered, I would guess that most people on here would give you the same advice; i.e. tell the seller to get the place registered and then you will consider buying the house.
Would you purchase a property in your home country, if you knew that the property was not registered ? If your answer is no, then why would you consider buying an unregistered property in a foreign country ?
Never forget caveat emptor. Let the buyer beware.
- November 14, 2015 at 12:15 pm #188177
it’s actually not that unusual in rural areas of spain & the solution is not as difficult as you might imagine. you need to talk to the town council of the area & the notary.
- November 18, 2015 at 10:07 pm #188306
Bo Jangles you are the man finally someones got Spain sorted out.
Tracy keep your money in the bank were the bandito’s can’t get to it,that’s an English bank of course.
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