I am getting divorced and I would like my husband to buy my share of our Spanish holiday home.
We own the property jointly (50/50) but I have agreed that he can give me a sum of money, which is just 25% of the total value, not 50%. Would I have to pay Capital Gains tax on the whole 50% even though I am only taking 25% in monetary value? Also, what other taxes, legal fees etc would need to be paid to transfer the property over to his name? Many hanks to anyone who can help!
Everything you need to know about property in Spain
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