I’m a UK resident with a holiday home in Spain, I’ve been advised to include a Brussels IV clause in my English will to cover my Spanish property. Is this advisable? If so, do I no longer need the Spanish will at all?
I would rather not be bound by Spanish ‘Forced Heirship’ rules so using Brussels IV seems to make sense. Would there be any other associated problems with the Spanish will not being used?
Can the Spanish property pass free of any Inheritance Tax to my spouse using the English will? Otherwise I understand that to avoid paying IHT in Spain the property needs to kept for 5 years and be left to certain family members?