I am getting divorced and I would like my husband to buy my share of our Spanish holiday home. We own the property jointly (50/50) but I have agreed that he can give me a sum of money, which is just 25% of the total value, not 50%. Would I have to pay Capital Gains tax on the whole 50% even though I am only taking 25% in monetary value? Also, what other taxes, legal fees etc would need to be paid to transfer the property over to his name? Many hanks to anyone who can help!
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