I’m looking for some advice about the ‘black money’ issue if possible.
I’m selling my property and have been told by my estate agent that the Spanish buyers would like to pay 60,000 euros in ‘black money’. This seems quite odd to me as normally I’d expect it to be the other way around i.e. the vendor (me in this case) would be the one asking for cash payment from the buyer in an attempt to avoid paying CGT.
I have nothing to gain from this scenario either way as there will be no profit on my sale in any case, so what can the angle be? Is this some kind of scam that I’m unaware of or do the vendors just need to get rid of 60,000 euros in cash?
Any advice would be much appreciated.
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